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What are the Problems in Writing the ISC CISSP Exam?
The hardest part of taking this certification exam is not the test itself, but rather the time required to take it. Because there are over 200 multiple-choice questions and four security domains covered by the CISSP, you will need enough time to complete the test. As a result, CISSP preparation material must be carefully considered before you choose it. Do not choose a material that does not cover all domains and questions because it might harm your performance. You will be expected to have a thorough understanding of the latest details in each area of security, so it is essential that you are aware of this. After all, you will have to provide evidence that you are aware of all the areas that are included in the CISSP standards. There are many ways to study for the CISSP, some of which include preparing for practice exams, reading about the areas that you will be tested on, and doing research on similar topics that you will cover on the exam.
Practice exams are available in the form of CISSP Dumps to help you assess your readiness. You can also continuously review your knowledge by going through articles and blogs written on information security topics. Finally, avoid unnecessary distractions while studying because this can affect your performance.
The CISSP exam covers a wide range of topics including security and risk management, asset security, security engineering, communication and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security. CISSP exam is designed to test an individual's understanding of these topics and their ability to apply them in a practical setting.
NEW QUESTION # 538
An organization implements a remote access server (RAS), Once users connect to the server, digital certificates are used to authenticate their identity. What type of extensible Authentication protocol (EAP) would the organization use during this authentication?
- A. Message Digest 5 (MD5)
- B. Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
- C. Transport layer security (TLS)
- D. Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is the type of Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) that the organization would use during this authentication. EAP is a framework that enables the use of various authentication methods and protocols in wireless and remote access networks. EAP supports different types of credentials, such as passwords, tokens, certificates, or biometrics. EAP-TLS is a type of EAP that uses TLS to provide mutual authentication and encryption between the client and the server, using digital certificates. EAP-TLS is considered one of the most secure and robust EAP methods, as it prevents man-in-the-middle, replay, and dictionary attacks, and provides confidentiality, integrity, and non-repudiation for the authentication process.
References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4: Communication and Network Security, page 175. CISSP Practice Exam | Boson, Question 12.
NEW QUESTION # 539
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles.
Which of the following will indicate where the IT budget is BEST allocated during this time?
- A. Policies
- B. Metrics
- C. Guidelines
- D. Frameworks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 540
Which of the following will you consider as a "role" under a role based access control system?
- A. Bank computer
- B. Bank network
- C. Bank rules
- D. Bank teller
Answer: D
Explanation:
With role-based access control, access rights are grouped by role name, and the use of resources is restricted to individuals authorized to assume the associated role. For example, within a hospital system the role of doctor can include operations to perform diagnosis, prescribe medication, and order laboratory tests; and the role of researcher can be limited to gathering anonymous clinical information for studies.
NEW QUESTION # 541
Which of the following would an attacker BEST be able to accomplish through the use of Remote Access Tools (RAT)?
- A. Maintain and expand control
- B. Reduce the probability of identification
- C. Detect further compromise of the target
- D. Destabilize the operation of the host
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 542
Which of the following is NOT a component of an Operations Security "triples"?
- A. Threat
- B. Asset
- C. Risk
- D. Vulnerability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The term operations security refers to the act of understanding the threats to and vulnerabilities of computer operations in order to routinely support operational activities that enable computer systems to function correctly.
Like the other domains, the Operations Security domain is concerned with triples: threats, vulnerabilities, and assets. We will now look at what constitutes a triple in the Operations Security domain:
A threat in the Operations Security domain can be defined as the presence of any potential event that
could cause harm by violating security. An example of an operations threat is an operator's abuse of privileges that violates confidentiality.
A vulnerability is defined as a weakness in a system that enables security to be violated. An example of
an operations vulnerability is a weak implementation of the separation of duties.
An asset is considered anything that is a computing resource or ability, such as hardware, software,
data, and personnel.
'Risk' is not a component of the Operations Security "triples".
References:
Krutz, Ronald L. and Russel Dean Vines, The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, New York, 2001, p. 216
Krutz, Ronald L. and Russell Dean Vines, The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the CISSP and ISSEP Exams, 2nd Edition, Wiley Publishing, Indianapolis, 2004, p. 302
NEW QUESTION # 543
An organization is looking to improve threat detection on their wireless network. The company goal is to automate alerts to improve response efforts. Which of the following best practices should be implemented FIRST?
- A. Deploy a standalone guest Wi-Fi network.
- B. Implement multi-factor authentication (MFA) on all domain accounts.
- C. Implement 802.1x authentication.
- D. Deploy a wireless intrusion detection system (IDS).
Answer: D
Explanation:
The best practice that should be implemented first to improve threat detection on the wireless network is C. Deploy a wireless intrusion detection system (IDS). A wireless IDS can monitor the network traffic and alert the administrator of any suspicious or malicious activity, such as unauthorized access, denial-of-service attacks, or rogue access points. A wireless IDS can also help automate the response efforts by blocking or isolating the attackers. The other options are also important for wireless network security, but they are not directly related to threat detection.
NEW QUESTION # 544
One of Canada's leading pharmaceutical firms recently hired a Chief Data Officer (CDO) to oversee its data privacy program. The CDO has discovered the firm's marketing department has been collecting information from individuals without their knowledge and consent via the company website. Which of the following privacy regulations should concern the CDO regarding this practice?
- A. The Fair Information Practice Principles (FIPPs)
- B. The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA)
- C. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
- D. The Privacy Act of 1974
Answer: B
Explanation:
PIPEDA is Canada's federal privacy law governing the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information by private sector organizations. It sets out rules for how organizations must handle individuals' personal information, including obtaining consent for the collection and use of personal data. Violating PIPEDA by collecting information without consent can result in significant penalties and fines. Therefore, the CDO should be concerned about ensuring compliance with PIPEDA and rectifying the unauthorized data collection practice.
NEW QUESTION # 545
The goal of a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is to determine which of the following?
- A. Cost effectiveness of installing software security patches
- B. Resource priorities for recovery and Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)
- C. Which security measures should be implemented
- D. Cost effectiveness of business recovery
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Software Development Security
NEW QUESTION # 546
Which is a characteristic of IDEA?
- A. 56 bytes
- B. 64 bits
- C. All of the above
- D. 64 bytes
- E. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
From Wikipedia: International Data Encryption Algorithm (IDEA) operates on 64-bit blocks using a 128-bit key, and consists of a series of eight identical transformations (a round, see the illustration) and an output transformation (the half-round). The processes for encryption and decryption are similar. IDEA derives much of its security by interleaving operations from different groups - modular addition and multiplication, and bitwise eXclusive OR (XOR) - which are algebraically "incompatible" in some sense.
NEW QUESTION # 547
Which choice below does NOT accurately describe a task of the
Configuration Control Board?
- A. The CCB is responsible for assuring that changes made do not
jeopardize the soundness of the verification system. - B. The CCB is responsible for documenting the status of configuration
control activities. - C. The CCB should meet periodically to discuss configuration status
accounting reports. - D. The CCB assures that the changes made are approved, tested,
documented, and implemented correctly.
Answer: B
Explanation:
All analytical and design tasks are conducted under the direction
of the vendors corporate entity called the Configuration Control
Board (CCB). The CCB is headed by a chairperson who is
responsible for assuring that changes made do not jeopardize
the soundness of the verification system and assures that the
changes made are approved, tested, documented, and implemented
correctly.
The members of the CCB should interact periodically, either
through formal meetings or other available means, to discuss configuration management topics such as proposed changes, configuration status accounting reports, and other topics that may be of interest to
the different areas of the system development. These interactions
should be held to keep the entire system team updated on all
advancements or alterations in the verification system.
Answer b describes configuration accounting. Configuration
accounting documents the status of configuration control activities
and, in general, provides the information needed to manage a
configuration effectively. The configuration accounting reports are
reviewed by the CCB. Source: NCSC-TG-014-89, Guidelines for Formal
Verification Systems.
NEW QUESTION # 548
The personal laptop of an organization executive is stolen from the office, complete with personnel and project records. Which of the following should be done FIRST to mitigate future occurrences?
- A. Create policies addressing critical information on personal laptops.
- B. Monitor personal laptops for critical information.
- C. Issue cable locks for use on personal laptops.
- D. Encrypt disks on personal laptops.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Developing and enforcing policies regarding the handling and security of critical information on personal laptops is crucial. This ensures that there are clear guidelines on how sensitive data should be managed, even before implementing technical controls like encryption or physical security measures. Proper policies can also guide how to respond to such incidents and prevent recurrence.
NEW QUESTION # 549
Which of the following can best eliminate dial-up access through a Remote Access Server as a hacking vector?
- A. Setting modem ring count to at least 5.
- B. Installing the Remote Access Server outside the firewall and forcing legitimate users to authenticate to the firewall.
- C. Only attaching modems to non-networked hosts.
- D. Using a TACACS+ server.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Containing the dial-up problem is conceptually easy: by installing the Remote
Access Server outside the firewall and forcing legitimate users to authenticate to the firewall, any
access to internal resources through the RAS can be filtered as would any other connection
coming from the Internet.
The use of a TACACS+ Server by itself cannot eliminate hacking.
Setting a modem ring count to 5 may help in defeating war-dialing hackers who look for modem by
dialing long series of numbers.
Attaching modems only to non-networked hosts is not practical and would not prevent these hosts
from being hacked.
Source: STREBE, Matthew and PERKINS, Charles, Firewalls 24seven, Sybex 2000, Chapter 2:
Hackers.
NEW QUESTION # 550
Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?
- A. Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.
- B. The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.
- C. Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.
- D. Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 551
What is the BEST method to detect the most common improper initialization problems in programming languages?
- A. Use and specify a strong character encoding.
- B. Use data flow analysis to minimize the number of false positives.
- C. Perform input validation on any numeric inputs by assuring that they are within the expected range.
- D. Use automated static analysis tools that target this type of weakness.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 552
Which of the following is NOT considered an element of a backup alternative?
- A. Warm site
- B. Remote journaling
- C. Checklist
- D. Electronic vaulting
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is Checklist. A checklist is a type of disaster recovery plan test. Electronic vaulting is the batch transfer of backup data to an off-site location. Remote journaling is the parallel processing of transactions to an alternate site. A warm site is a backup processing alternative.
NEW QUESTION # 553
Which one of the following is used to provide authentication and confidentiality for e-mail messages?
- A. IPSEC AH
- B. Digital signature
- C. MD4
- D. PGP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
PGP is often used for signing, encrypting, and decrypting texts, e-mails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to increase the security of e-mail communications.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Digital signature is used only to ensure the origin, but cannot do any authentication.
C: IPSec can provide encryption and authentication, but work on packets not on email messages.
D: MD4 is an algorithm used to verify data integrity, but it cannot be used to provide authentication.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 850-851
NEW QUESTION # 554
Which of the following statements relating to Distributed Computing Environment (DCE) is FALSE?
- A. It is a set of management services with a communication layer based on RPC.
- B. It is a layer of software that sits on the top of the network layer and provides services to the applications above it.
- C. It provides the same functionality as DCOM, but it is more proprietary than DCOM.
- D. It uses a Universal Unique Identifier (UUID) to uniquely identify users, resources and components.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Distributed Computing Environment (DCE) does provide the same functionality as DCOM, but it is NOT more proprietary than DCOM.
Distributed Computing Environment (DCE) is a standard developed by the Open Software Foundation (OSF), also called Open Group. It is a client/server framework that is available to many vendors to use within their products. This framework illustrates how various capabilities can be integrated and shared between heterogeneous systems. DCE provides a Remote Procedure Call (RPC) service, security service, directory service, time service, and distributed file support. It was one of the first attempts at distributed computing in the industry.
DCE is a set of management services with a communications layer based on RPC. It is a layer of software that sits on the top of the network layer and provides services to the applications above it. DCE and Distributed Component Object Model (DCOM) offer much of the same functionality. DCOM, however, was developed by Microsoft and is more proprietary in nature.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is true that DCE is a layer of software that sits on the top of the network layer and provides services to the applications above it.
B: It is true that DCE uses a Universal Unique Identifier (UUID) to uniquely identify users, resources and components.
D: It is true that DCE is a set of management services with a communication layer based on RPC.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2013, pp. 1146, 1142
NEW QUESTION # 555
Of the following, which is a specific loss criteria that should be considered while developing a BIA?
- A. Loss of skilled workers knowledge
- B. Loss in revenue
- C. Loss in profits
- D. Loss in reputation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Loss of skilled workers knowledge is considered to be a BIA loss criteria.
BIA loss criteria include:
Loss in revenue
Loss in profits
Loss in reputation and public confidence
Loss of competitive advantages
Increase in operational expenses
Violations of contract agreements
Violations of legal and regulatory requirements
Delayed income costs
Loss in productivity
Incorrect Answers:
B: Loss in revenue is a BIA loss criteria.
C: Loss in profits is a BIA loss criteria.
D: Loss in reputation is a BIA loss criteria.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, p. 909
NEW QUESTION # 556
Which of the following computer design approaches is based on the fact that in earlier technologies, the instruction fetch was the longest part of the cycle?
- A. Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC)
- B. Pipelining
- C. Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC)
- D. Scolar processors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: pg 255 Krutz: CISSP Prep Guide: Gold Edition
NEW QUESTION # 557
Which of the following is an ip address that is private (i.e. reserved for internal networks, and not a valid address to use on the internet)?
- A. 172.140.42.5
- B. 172.12.42.5
- C. 172.15.45.5
- D. 172.31.42.5
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved the following three blocks of the IP address space for private Internets - 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255- that are known as "global non-routable addresses."" Pg. 94 Krutz: The CISSP Prep Guide.
NEW QUESTION # 558
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ISC CISSP certification exam is a rigorous exam that tests the knowledge of candidates in various areas of information security. CISSP exam covers eight domains, including security and risk management, asset security, security engineering, communications and network security, identity and access management, security assessment and testing, security operations, and software development security. Candidates must demonstrate their proficiency in each of these domains to earn the certification.
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