[Jan-2022] Symantec SCS Certification 250-550 Exam Practice Dumps [Q32-Q57]

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[Jan-2022] Symantec SCS Certification 250-550 Exam Practice Dumps

2022 250-550 Premium Files Test pdf - Free Dumps Collection

NEW QUESTION 32
What happens when an administrator blacklists a file?

  • A. The file is assigned to the Blacklist task list
  • B. The file is automatically quarantined
  • C. The file is assigned to a chosen Blacklist policy
  • D. The file is assigned to the default Blacklist policy

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 33
An administrator must create a custom role in ICDm.
Which area of the management console is able to have access restricted or granted?

  • A. Agent deployment
  • B. Hybrid device management
  • C. Policy Management
  • D. Custom Dashboard Creation

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 34
Why would an administrator choose the Server-optimized installation option when creating an installation package?

  • A. To add the SES client's Optimize Memory setting to the default server installation.
  • B. To reduce the SES client's using resources that are required for other server-specific processes.
  • C. To limit the Intrusion Prevention policy to use server-only signatures.
  • D. To add the Server-optimized Firewall policy

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 35
An administrator is evaluating an organization's computers for an upcoming SES deployment. Which computer meets the pre-requisites for the SES client?

  • A. A computer running Mac OS X 10.8 with 500 MB of disk space, 4 GB of RAM, and an Intel Core 2 Duo 64-bit processor
  • B. A computer running Windows 10 with 400 MB of disk space, 2 GB of RAM, and a 2.4 GHz Intel Pentium 4 processor
  • C. A computer running Mac OS X 10.14 with 400 MB of disk space, 4 GB of RAM, and an Intel Core 2 Duo 64-bit processor
  • D. A computer running Windows 8 with 380 MB of disk space, 2 GB of RAM, and a 2.8 GHz Intel Pentium 4 processor

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 36
An administrator suspects that several computers have become part of a botnet. What should the administrator do to detect botnet activity on the network?

  • A. Add botnet related signatures to the IPS policy's Audit Signatures list
  • B. Enable the IPS policy's Show notification on the device setting
  • C. Enable the Command and Control Server Firewall
  • D. Set the Antimalware policy's Monitoring Level to 4

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 37
The ICDm has generated a blacklist task due to malicious traffic detection. Which SES component was utilized to make that detection?

  • A. Firewall
  • B. Reputation
  • C. Antimalware
  • D. IPS

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 38
Which dashboard should an administrator access to view the current health of the environment?

  • A. The SES Dashboard
  • B. The Antimalware Dashboard
  • C. The Device Integrity Dashboard
  • D. The Security Control Dashboard

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 39
Which device page should an administrator view to track the progress of an issued device command?

  • A. Activity Update
  • B. Command History
  • C. Recent Activity
  • D. Command Status

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 40
An administrator selects the Discovered Items list in the ICDm to investigate a recent surge in suspicious file activity. What should an administrator do to display only high risk files?

  • A. Apply a list control
  • B. Apply a list filter
  • C. Apply a search modifier
  • D. Apply a search rule

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 41
Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?

  • A. Restricted Administrator
  • B. Limited Administrator
  • C. Server Administrator
  • D. Endpoint Console Domain Administrator

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 42
Which type of organization is likely to be targeted with emerging threats?

  • A. Small organization with externalized managed security
  • B. Large organizations with dedicated security teams
  • C. Small organization with little qualified staff
  • D. Large organization with high turnover

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 43
What characterizes an emerging threat in comparison to traditional threat?

  • A. Emerging threats are undetectable by signature based engines.
  • B. Emerging threats are more sophisticated than traditional threats.
  • C. Emerging threats use new techniques and 0-day vulnerability to propagate.
  • D. Emerging threats requires artificial intelligence to be detected.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 44
Which statement best describes Artificial Intelligence?

  • A. A program that can predict when a task should be performed
  • B. A program that is autonomous and needs training to perform a task
  • C. A program that learns from experience and perform autonomous tasks
  • D. A program that automates tasks with a static set of instructions

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 45
Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?

  • A. file-less attack
  • B. script kiddies
  • C. opportunistic attack
  • D. living off the land

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 46
What are two (2) benefits of a fully cloud managed endpoint protection solution? (Select two)

  • A. Reduced 3rd party licensing cost
  • B. Reduced network usage
  • C. Increased visibility
  • D. Increased content update frequency
  • E. Reduced database usage

Answer: A,E

 

NEW QUESTION 47
An endpoint is offline, and the administrator issues a scan command. What happens to the endpoint when it restarts, if it lacks connectivity?

  • A. The system scans after the content update is downloaded.
  • B. The system downloads the content without scanning.
  • C. The system starts without scanning.
  • D. The system is scanning when started.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 48
Which rule types should be at the bottom of the list when an administrator adds device control rules?

  • A. General "brand defined" rules
  • B. Specific "device model" rules
  • C. Specific "device type" rules
  • D. General "catch all" rules

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 49
In which phase of MITRE framework would attackers exploit faults in software to directly tamper with system memory?

  • A. Discovery
  • B. Execution
  • C. Defense Evasion
  • D. Exfiltration

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 50
Which framework, open and available to any administrator, is utilized to categorize adversarial tactics and for each phase of a cyber attack?

  • A. MITRE RESPONSE
  • B. MITRE ATT&CK
  • C. MITRE ATTACK MATRIX
  • D. MITRE ADV&NCE

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 51
Which statement best defines Machine Learning?

  • A. A program that needs user input to perform a task.
  • B. A program that learns from experience to optimize the output of a task.
  • C. A program that teams from observing other programs.
  • D. A program that require data to perform a task.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 52
Which report template includes a summary of risk distribution by devices, users, and groups?

  • A. Comprehensive
  • B. Device Integrity
  • C. Threat Distribution
  • D. Weekly

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 53
Which Symantec component is required to enable two factor authentication with VIP on the Integrated Cyber Defense manager (ICDm)?

  • A. A physical token or a software token
  • B. A software token and a VIP server
  • C. A software token and an active directory account
  • D. A physical token or a secure USB key

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 54
Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?

  • A. Application Activity
  • B. Security
  • C. System
  • D. Diagnostic

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 55
Which Antimalware technology is used after all local resources have been exhausted?

  • A. ITCS
  • B. Reputation
  • C. Sapient
  • D. Emulator

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 56
Which SES feature helps administrator apply policies based on specific endpoint profiles?

  • A. Policy Bundles
  • B. Policy Groups
  • C. Device Profiles
  • D. Device Groups

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 57
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